[Spellyans] fleece

[j.mills at email.com]

Why unlikely? In the manuscripts, <u> and <v> are in free variation. <u> and <w> are also in free variation. And <f> and <v> are also in free variation. Why then assume that <w> is only used to represent [u]?
Jon

_____________________________________ 
Dr. Jon Mills, 
School of European Culture and Languages, 
University of Kent



-----Original Message-----
From: nicholas williams <njawilliams at gmail.com>
To: Standard Cornish discussion list <spellyans at kernowek.net>
Sent: Thu, Nov 26, 2009 2:02 pm
Subject: Re: [Spellyans] fleece


In both CW lywe and TH lew? That seems unlikely.


On 26 Du 2009, at 13:58, j.mills at email.com wrote:


 I wonder whether the attested <-w> might not represent [v].
Jon



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