[Spellyans] Multiple adjectives after feminine nouns

[Michael Everson]

On 16 Mar 2009, at 19:03, Craig Weatherhill wrote:

> The problem is that the corpus is incomplete and, therefore, we can  
> only gain limited knowledge from it.  The rest has to be arrived at  
> by analogy.

That is true, but there is no analogy that handles this rule. It goes  
like this:

1. There could be NO examples of a feminine noun followed by two or  
more adjectives. In this case one would assume that Cornish does what  
the other Celtic languages do, and lenites each adjective.

2. There is at least one example of a feminine noun followed by two or  
more adjectives showing the feature described. And in fairness, there  
had better ought to be more than one example for it to be considered  
an actual rule.

> I remember being told once that 'mar pleg/plek' isn't attested in  
> the corpus, but we all use it, nonetheless.

It's in CW.

> I remember, too, that Nance made certain guesses that were shown to  
> be correct by the discovery of BK.

This isn't a "guess" anyone would make. Either there is attestation  
for it, or it is a mistake.

Michael Everson * http://www.evertype.com