[Spellyans] 2nd pl imperative

[Hewitt, Stephen]

I can't think of any verb for which there is a distinction in Welsh.

In Breton, there is normally no distinction. However, in Leon (NW of Breton-speaking area) 2pl used to be -it, but is increasingly -oc'h (probably through analogy with other tenses); but for the imperative, it is only -it, never -oc'h, so in those dialects there is now a stable distinction between present 2 pl -oc'h and imperative -it.

Steve Hewitt

-----Original Message-----
From: spellyans-bounces at kernowek.net
[mailto:spellyans-bounces at kernowek.net]On Behalf Of Ray Chubb
Sent: 18 February 2009 13:12
To: Standard Cornish discussion list
Subject: Re: [Spellyans] 2nd pl imperative



On 17 Whe 2009, at 16:42, Eddie Climo wrote:

> As far as I recall, this distinction between 2p.pl. indicative and  
> imperative is not made in French, Spanish or German, nor more  
> relevantly perhaps in Welsh or Scots Gaelic.
>

My knowledge of Welsh is limited but it appeared from the Welsh  
grammar that I have that the distinction is made for certain verbs.
>

Ray Chubb

Portreth
Kernow





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