[Spellyans] 2nd pl imperative

[Eddie Climo]

As far as I recall, this distinction between 2p.pl. indicative and  
imperative is not made in French, Spanish or German, nor more  
relevantly perhaps in Welsh or Scots Gaelic.

Since the citations strongly suggest that this distinction was not  
made historically, I see little virtue in recommending it for revived  
Cornish. Of course, it's a truism that the final decision is in the  
consensus amongst Cornish users, rather than being in the hands of our  
small group. But just as they are free to use whatever forms they  
choose, so are we free likewise to recommend or deprecate whatever we  
choose.

The tension between these varying views of a language are completely  
natural and healthy. I'm at a loss to understand how some Cornish  
speakers are so paranoid about the idea.

Eddie Foirbeis Climo
- -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- - -- -
Dres ethom akennow byner re bons lyeshes
Accenti non multiplicanda praeter necessitatem

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