[Spellyans] i ~ y

[nicholas williams]

Are you seriously suggesting that /d/ when lenited initially might  
have had an allophonic voiceless variant?
It was written after all  written <th>, e.g. ty a then omma OM 230.

There were two forms of the third singular masculine prepositional  
pronoun: dotho/dotha and thotho/thotha.
Are you suggesting that the first had a voiced initial and the second  
could have a voiceless one?

Lhuyd may in final position have been influenced by Welsh, but  
initially he actually has different symbols
to represent the voiced and the unvoiced dental continuants.

Then there is the question of place-names.
Is there a difference in the traditional pronunciation of say  
Rosenithon < ros an eythyn
and Trevithick < tre Vudhek?
Perhaps Craig could be helpful here.

Nicholas


Nicholas

On 3 Feb 2009, at 16:27, Hewitt, Stephen wrote:

> So please, incontrovertible evidence, Lhuyd aside, in favour of two  
> separate phonemes /ð/ and /θ/? Surely the "authentic spellings"  
> strongly suggest only one...?

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