[Spellyans] i ~ y

[Daniel Prohaska]

The SWF doesn’t, unfortunately, go by the attested spellings, but rather assumes a context conditioned variation of [ð] and [θ] in unstressed syllables where etymologically /ð/ is expected, i.e. British /d/ or intervocalic /j/. As far as I can recall this was an AHG decision and it is mentioned in the final specification.  

Dan

 

  _____  

From: nicholas williams
Sent: Monday, February 02, 2009 5:24 PM



 

In a phonemic spelling they would be written in the same way.

 

Incidentally George himself pronounces the Cornish word for 'lord'

with a short unstressed [U] and a voiceless final segment, 

i.e. exactly as does KS with its <arlùth>.  I suspect that most

speakers (of whatever school) have a voiceless th in this word.

Moreover Lhuyd spells the spoken Cornish form as <arleth> with a

voiceless final.

Why then does the SWF

write <arludh> with a voiced final?

 

Nicholas

 

On 2 Feb 2009, at 15:15, Daniel Prohaska wrote:





Ken George even says that unstressed KK <i>, <y> and <u> are pronounced the same.

 

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