[Spellyans] i ~ y

[nicholas williams]

In a phonemic spelling they would be written in the same way.

Incidentally George himself pronounces the Cornish word for 'lord'
with a short unstressed [U] and a voiceless final segment,
i.e. exactly as does KS with its <arlùth>.  I suspect that most
speakers (of whatever school) have a voiceless th in this word.
Moreover Lhuyd spells the spoken Cornish form as <arleth> with a
voiceless final.
Why then does the SWF
write <arludh> with a voiced final?

Nicholas

On 2 Feb 2009, at 15:15, Daniel Prohaska wrote:

> Ken George even says that unstressed KK <i>, <y> and <u> are  
> pronounced the same.

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