[Spellyans] y-umlaut in 'Beunans Meriasek' ?

[ajtrim at msn.com]

Or it could have been [pasi:s] / [pasi:z]. I don't know how we can tell. The <ie> in JCH <passiez> could have been [i:].
The spellings <yy> / <ye> / <ij> are not commonly used elsewhere in Cornish so there must have been a reason for it.
How were the preterites spelt? Do we see the same spellings there (i.e. when it's <-ys> not <-as>)?


Regards,

Andrew J. Trim




From: nicholas williams 
Sent: Sunday, November 23, 2008 3:44 PM
To: Standard Cornish discussion list 
Subject: Re: [Spellyans] y-umlaut in 'Beunans Meriasek' ?


Tregear has: 


In mar ver dell ew lymmyn infancy passys in oys den TH 28
han brontyryan in tyrmyn passis TH 39
rag lyas blethan tremenys ha passyys TH 40a
In termyn passyes, pan esans ow hagrea TH 49a.


It may be that there were two forms: [pasj at z] <passyys, passyes> and [pasIz] <passys, passis>.
Or there may have been one pronunciation [pasIz] only.
In the light of passiez in JCH, perhaps the first possibility is the more likely.


Nicholas










On 23 Nov 2008, at 14:57, Craig Weatherhill wrote:


  What happens with the verb "passya", where the Y is unstressed?  In Late Cornish (c.f. John of Chyannor), we're given "passiez".  So, is this an exception?  Is the past participle passys or passyes?




--------------------------------------------------------------------------------


_______________________________________________
Spellyans mailing list
Spellyans at kernowek.net
http://kernowek.net/mailman/listinfo/spellyans_kernowek.net
-------------- next part --------------
An HTML attachment was scrubbed...
URL: <http://kernowek.net/pipermail/spellyans_kernowek.net/attachments/20081124/66b14350/attachment.html>